re: #186 PT Barnum

You seem to be implying that the democrats getting 2% more means that they are somehow more in the pocket of the insurance industry than the GOP. I simply don’t think that correlation proves anything. I think a mean contribution per member per party might be a bit more telling, as a 2% difference could be nothing more than there being more Democrats in office than Republicans at the present time.

I’m not implying anything except that progressive got more contributions than conservatives in 2008… is that right or incorrect?