re: #96 MandyManners

Creepy bit of anecdotal evidence to illustrate this: several years ago, I read (forget where) of a serial killer who murdered an 8-year-old girl - he did not do anything to her of a sexual nature beforehand, but masturbated after strangling her to death. That demonstrates pretty bluntly that violent acts turned him on.

This raises the following question, however - if a warped sex drive fuels violent fantasies which in turn are acted out, would killing off the person’s sex drive also turn off the desire to commit those acts?