re: #204 stabby

What would you say if the Republicans introduced a regressive tax that the poor could evade by not voting?

You would give them the benefit of the doubt that it was merest error?

There is historical precedence *in the United States* for using a tax as a method of disenfranchisement, thus no.

And also a history of disenfranchisement attempts in the United States as well which makes one generally suspicious of law changes that appear to have an impact on the ability to vote (Voter ID, polling station locations and hours, etc.)