re: #6 Lidane

1, [Inserts obligatory IANAL disclaimer HERE]

2. See 1.: but don’t official legal attempts (on, say, the State level) to circumvent or nullify subsidiary (county, municipal) anti-discrimination statutes run afoul of established SCOTUS rulings, specifically Romer v. Evans (1996)? I realize the wording in the Colorado Amendment that was struck down by Romer was different that that in the Indiana RFRA, but isn’t the principle the same? I.e., that States cannot, by statute, preemptively tell, say, cities, that they can’t enforce anti-discrimination ordinances - as I believe the Indiana law does (?)

Am I mistaken?