re: #31 lawhawk

And it would also adversely affect renters, who comprise a significant number of voters in urban areas, which also happen to be the areas of the country where conservatives and GOPers generally fare the worst.

Another thought.

In the United States, the vast majority of people who live in homes nowadays are paying a mortgage - and the deed to those houses are in the lender’s name. Does this mean that those financial institutions have the right to vote instead of actual people?