re: #125 Obdicut

I did read it. It is really, really, really clearly alleging that Islam causes the persecution of Christians.

Now, Christians persecuted Jews for hundreds of years, and are still doing it. But I wouldn’t ever say that Christianity caused the persecution of Jews, would you?

Ah, ya…..under the same circumstances outlined, of course I would.

No I don’t. I’m not sure why you’re claiming I must be clearly said that Judaism subjugates those of other religions, since I never said that. I said that it would be bigoted to say that.

Can you explain why you’re claiming I said that?

That is not what I am saying at all.

I linked an article where, to any reasonable reader, the clear inference is that Sharia itself, inherently— by a ‘strict observation’— mandates oppression of Christians. That’s bigoted, the same as would be saying that ‘strict’ observation of Judaism subjugates those of other religions.

In the first part of your comparison you use the word “inference”, in the second part of your comparison you use the term “saying”.

This makes your comparison between the two examples invalid (in my opinion).