re: #428 TooDamNice

I should probably wait for your reespose to my first question… but here goes: How could there be “nothing” before the big bang?

Because ‘before’ indicates time previous to the Big Bang, which would be impossible, considering that the matter-energy created by the Big Bang itself created spacetime (both space AND time) via gravitiational curvature. In fact, before the Big Bang, there not only wasn’t a ‘then’; there wasn’t even a ‘there.’