Maybe this is the wrong forum to even suggest this sort of thing, but shouldn’t Israel’s acts be viewed in the context of the fact that the attack against the aid ships occurred in context of enforcing an unspeakably brutal and blockade against Gaza (a sort of “collective punishment” against Gaza’s civilians for voting Hamas into power)? Even if within a certain limited prism we could make a coherent argument that the IDF’s attack of the aid boats was “justified,” did these acts not occur to enforce a larger brutal agenda of the Israeli extreme right-wing?