re: #234 Feline Fearless Leader

There is historical precedence *in the United States* for using a tax as a method of disenfranchisement, thus no.

And also a history of disenfranchisement attempts in the United States as well which makes one generally suspicious of law changes that appear to have an impact on the ability to vote (Voter ID, polling station locations and hours, etc.)

Everyone understands that you are talking about two completely different things called ‘poll tax’, m’right?