re: #422 bosforus

You were correct. I missed one of your posts.. my bad…

There will be as many girls as boys.

The reason is that the sum of 1/2^n from n=1 to infinity is 1.

Make a prob tree for the whole populace and assume .5 chance of a boy.

.5 of the populace had a boy and stopped on the first round.

The other .5 had a girl.

On the second round, those who had a girl try again…

.5 have a boy and stop to be balanced out by .5 having a girl…

etc etc…

sum them all up and you have 1:1