re: #256 Obdicut

Again: No part of Sharia law that contravened US law would possibly be allowed. So, as I said, to the extent Sharia law engaged in discrimination, it would not be recognized.

If the parties agree to be bound by Sharia rules of commerce or evidence which are completely at odds with the domestic law, what then? For example, if an attempt to charge interest to a Muslim is unenforceable under Sharia, should the domestic court enforce a discharge the debt even if the borrower had agreed to pay the interest? Or what if Sharia law allows oral agreements to be proven in circumstances where the domestic law does not, should the State sanction such results? By recognizing and enforcing parallel and mutually exclusive legal systems, social and commercial cohesion and certainty would be compromised.