re: #434 Fairly Sure I’m Still Obdicut

This isn’t true, though. There’s plenty of secular Jews who identify as Jews and are identified by others as Jews.

That’s one particular narrow issue, and for some reason you’re saying that identifies the entire nation. For one thing, Jews who openly practice have a much rougher time of it than Jews who don’t, so it makes utter sense to admit them with priority. For another, purely secular Jews are granted just as much priority as religious Jews, as long as neither they nor their parents practiced another religion. It wasn’t the non-practice of Judaism that was or is the problem, but the active practice of another religion—this stems from a wave of Polish Catholic immigrants with Jewish ancestry in the 1960s, who were being persecuted in Poland, but who were culturally almost totally Polish-assimilated.

It’s really not, though. Israel could be a culturally Jewish state without being a religious Jewish one. It couldn’t possibly be the reverse.

I see your point, but I still don’t think it negates my original and prime point.

Let me see if I can rephrase so you understand the essence of my argument. Can Israel still be a Jewish state with a US first amendment’s intent: a wall between temple and state? In my opinion, no.