re: #52 Islamo-Masonic Conspirator

Strictly speaking, if one is an honest literalist fundie, then one won’t go with the “gays” version at all, since it’s nowhere in the Bible.

We have Ezekiel implying the sin was being cruel to those in need.

We have Jesus (allegedly) implying that Sodom’s & Gomorrah’s sin had something to do with how one treats strangers.

Finally, Paul says it had to do with turning to “strange flesh”. But what that means, nobody seems to know. Could that be a reference to sodomy? Maybe, but just as easily it could be a reference to rape or sex outside of marriage.

IIRC, the implication in the original story was that the inhabitants were all sorts of fucked up wrt sexuality and various other things (like not taking care of the poor and strangers), and wanted to sleep with the angels (maybe that’s where the “strange flesh” came from). There’s a lot of twisted shit in the old testament.