re: #802 Obdicut

Er, no. I said that you could show me up by answering the question. You haven’t.

Here it is again:

Why do you call cases of rape where there’s no force or violence whatsoever forceful and violent?

And here is my answer again:

#696

My position, again, is that There is NO NON-VIOLENT way to force intercourse on a person. All Rape is by definition violent.

AS IT APPLIES TO A BILL THAT IS ABOUT ABORTION.

I have been perfectly clear that MY DEFINITION of rape is compelling of a woman through physical force or duress to have sexual intercourse.

SO your question to me is “Why do you call cases of compelling of a woman through physical force or duress to have sexual intercourse where there’s no force or violence whatsoever forceful and violent?”